If a variable takes values 0, 1, 2,...,n with frequencies qn, C1 n·pqn-1, nC2p2·qn-2 . . . . . . nCnpn respectively, then the mean of the distribution is (where p+q=1).

Question

If a variable takes values $0, 1, 2, . . ., n$ with frequencies $q^{n}, {}^{n}C_{1} \cdot p q^{n - 1},^{n} C_{2} p^{2} \cdot q^{n - 2} . . . . . .^{n} C_{n} p^{n}$ respectively, then the mean of the distribution is (where $p + q = 1$ ).

n p

n q

n (p + q)

None of these

Solution

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