Question
Let $I(x)=\int \frac{x^{2}\left(x \sec ^{2} x+\tan x\right)}{(x \tan x+1)^{2}} d x$. If $I(0)=0$, then $I\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$ is equal to :
Let $I(x)=\int \frac{x^{2}\left(x \sec ^{2} x+\tan x\right)}{(x \tan x+1)^{2}} d x$. If $I(0)=0$, then $I\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$ is equal to :