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Question

Let $y=f(x)$ be the solution of the differential equation $y(x+1)dx-x^2dy=0,y(1)=e$. Then $\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {0^ + }} f(x)$ is equal to

${e^2}$
0
${1 \over {{e^2}}}$
${1 \over e}$

Solution

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