Question
If $f$ is a real valued differentiable function satisfying
$\left| {f\left( x \right) - f\left( y \right)} \right|$ $ \le {\left( {x - y} \right)^2}$, $x, y$ $ \in R$
and $f(0)$ = 0, then $f(1)$ equals
$\left| {f\left( x \right) - f\left( y \right)} \right|$ $ \le {\left( {x - y} \right)^2}$, $x, y$ $ \in R$
and $f(0)$ = 0, then $f(1)$ equals